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Re: Can array-ref return (values ...) ?



Brad Lucier <lucier@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> writes:
> > I don't understand. Array-ref by me returns the contents of a single
> > element, so that would be just (values v) which is just v.
> 
> Yes, it returns the contents of a single element, but what are the contents
> of a single element?  ...  Can it be
> (values a b)?  If not, why not?  

No. Because (values ...) is not a data constructor. It is a special
syntax that explicitly applies its arguments to the current
continuation [see the recent messages on cls under the TCO thread].

> And if not, perhaps it should be
> documented to be not possible.

OK. Except that it's really not possible because of R5RS.

david rush
-- 
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