This page is part of the web mail archives of SRFI 17 from before July 7th, 2015. The new archives for SRFI 17 contain all messages, not just those from before July 7th, 2015.
Per Bothner wrote, "Semantically, ... is arguably syntactic sugar for ...". (Details of ... are in the mail archive.) In other words, these are supposed to be semantically equivalent. I showed that they are not. Now you (Per) write > Perhaps I should re-phrase my point. The problem I see is with the point, not with its phrasing. And I'm afraid this restatement doesn't help me much either: > Consider: > (G) (set! top-level-variable v) > (L) (set! lexical-variable v) > (F) (set-member! table selector v). > > I claim (F) is closer semantically to (G) than (G) is to (L). I honestly don't understand this notion of semantic "close"ness. Equality I know; proximity, no. As such, therefore, I have no way of verifying your claim. It doesn't help that you have only asserted it. If this is unrelated to your justification for overloading set!, then let's move on. But if it is, formalizing this would be a great help. 'shriram