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> From: bear <bear@xxxxxxxxx> > On Wed, 20 Jul 2005, Paul Schlie wrote: > >> Candidly, I don't any reasonable way for exact and inexact >> representations to have the same infinite limit value, unless their >> value ranges are correspondingly defined as being equivalent, which >> typically isn't the case. > > Given the trouble it causes, perhaps they should be? I wouldn't argue, as +/- 10^300 is enough for anything I can imagine doing.