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> From: Robby Findler <robby@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> > At Sun, 09 Jan 2005 17:34:56 -0500, Paul Schlie wrote: >> I would expect a #; comment to lexically remove the expression/token it's >> been lexically prepended to, nothing else. (including white-space). i.e.: > > FWIW, this would make #; useless for me. When I use it, the entire > value is that it works at the read level, not the lexical level. > > Robby Please explain? In what circumstance would you actually prefer/require to express: (a #;#; b c) => (a) Vs (a #;b #;c) => (a)